What did king David have to brag about?
How is it that David can say, “restore unto me the joy of thy salvation?” What would he know of it? What in the world is going on here?
Purge me with hyssop, and I shall be clean: wash me, and I shall be whiter than snow. Make me to hear joy and gladness; that the bones which thou hast broken may rejoice. Hide thy face from my sins, and blot out all mine iniquities. Create in me a clean heart, O God; and renew a right spirit within me. Cast me not away from thy presence; and take not thy holy spirit from me. Restore unto me the joy of thy salvation; and uphold me with thy free spirit.
Now for us Pentecostal types, he even wanted to keep the presence of the Holy Spirit in his life. Now if I didn’t know better, if I had never read or heard of this prayer, I would conclude that it was the prayer of a New Testament believer. But it isn’t.
We have assumed as New Testament believers, we have access to those things the people of Israel in our Old Testament scriptures never had access to. But apparently not. David after his sin wanted the joy of the salvation of the Lord back in his life. But maybe I stretch it a little bit, huh. I am looking for something that is not there, right. David meant something else when he prayed to God. How could he ever let his heart rejoice in the Lord’s salvation when he never had it, right?
I have been advocating scripture teaches we have a hope of salvation and that it will be given to us when Christ returns. A Calvinist has repeatedly asked me what would the benefit for a believer if he hasn’t been saved. He assumes that there is no benefit to having a hope of salvation. But what does scripture teach us?
But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness. Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works, Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered. Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.
If anyone had a hope of salvation it would be David and yet he has the benefit of his hope of salvation. He is a 1,000 years before the sacrifice of Christ. Paul attributes to David the same knowledge of salvation that we share in the book of Romans. Paul wants his readers to understand their salvation and the imputing of grace, and he uses David as his example.
So do we now separate the joy David had about the Lord’s salvation, from the reason the joy would come, the grace given. Did David have a joy of his salvation without having his sins forgiven? Did David have his joy without the Lord declaring him guiltless?
How many of us quote psalms 51 when we are faced with our sins, and look to it for hope as we pray and sing this psalm. When we do this, do we splice and dice the meaning of the hope of salvation? Certainly not!
David had a hope of salvation and enjoyed it as much and found comfort in it as much as we do. He knew what it was to have his sins blotted out as much as we do. As I advocate in my book The Gospel According to the Gospel our hope in salvation is no more and no less that what the saints of the Old Testament hoped for. David didn’t ask of the Lord, restore the joy of my salvation, he asked for the joy of thy salvation. He understood his salvation was in the Lord. This too is what the New Testament writers teach. This is why we have to wait for the Lord to return to bring us our salvation. He is our salvation and we wait for His return.
The Gospel According to the Gospel teaches-
So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.
Receiving the end of your faith, even the salvation of your souls.
Whose gospel do you follow?
 Psalms 21:7-12
 Romans 4:5-8
 Hebrews 9:28
 1 Peter 1:9